>>127284>In Marxist thinking, everything naturally belongs to everyone and there is no property.Nice bait and switch. You obfuscate the meaning of property rights several times. The concept of property ownership itself being murky. First of which is this, "
Things that are not naturally owned by anyone, such as land, raw materials, etc, are up for grabs until someone claims them." Well, that is wrong. The claim to land is predicated on one's improvement of the land. If a labourer builds upon land, forms the area around it, and personifies it; is he too not an owner? The other distinction as governed by
law. Now this is a Roman designation, however you clearly reject law, so it does not matter. I suppose common law may apply, but that's
far too collectivistic. No, what you define law as a contract. To which doesn't suit much for property rights. Multiple parties can claim a single area with no feasible proof of being the first to occupy, or feasibly multiple people can be the first. This is why there are property disputes, and why there's a massive system of judicial body to justify the "right" to property.
Proudhon:
The right of occupation, or of the first occupant, is that which results from the actual, physical, real possession of a thing. I occupy a piece of land; the presumption is, that I am the proprietor, until the contrary is proved. We know that originally such a right cannot be legitimate unless it is reciprocal; the jurists say as much.
Cicero compares the earth to a vast theatre: Quemadmodum theatrum cum commune sit, recte tamen dici potest ejus esse eum locum quem quisque occuparit.
This passage is all that ancient philosophy has to say about the origin of property.
The theatre, says Cicero, is common to all; nevertheless, the place that each one occupies is called his own; that is, it is a place possessed, not a place appropriated. This comparison annihilates property; moreover, it implies equality. Can I, in a theatre, occupy at the same time one place in the pit, another in the boxes, and a third in the gallery? Not unless I have three bodies, like Geryon, or can exist in different places at the same time, as is related of the magician Apollonius.
According to Cicero, no one has a right to more than he needs: such is the true interpretation of his famous axiom — suum quidque cujusque sit, to each one that which belongs to him — an axiom that has been strangely applied. That which belongs to each is not that which each may possess, but that which each has a right to possess. Now, what have we a right to possess? That which is required for our labour and consumption; Cicero’s comparison of the earth to a theatre proves it. According to that, each one may take what place he will, may beautify and adorn it, if he can; it is allowable: but he must never allow himself to overstep the limit which separates him from another. The doctrine of Cicero leads directly to equality; for, occupation being pure toleration, if the toleration is mutual (and it cannot be otherwise) the possessions are equal.You see, the posts I made before on property had implied no coercion, but clearly defined from your definition of property attainment, coercion is fundamental to maintain a monopoly on appropriated land, if not then the whole thing falls apart and property reverts to single occupancy. But, it's your definition, and not Marxist. It's definitely not individualist neither, since the divide here is not by property, but individuality. Your explanation commodifies the individual as property and upholds instead a social contract.
“the individual has an existence only as a producer of exchange value, hence that the whole negation of his natural existence is already implied; that he is therefore entirely determined by society; that this further presupposes a division of labour etc., in which the individual is already posited in relations other than that of mere exchanger, etc. That therefore this presupposition by no means arises either out of the individual’s will or out of the immediate nature of the individual, but that it is, rather, historical, and posits the individual as already determined by society.”Anon, by default, you believe that the right to property entails the right to aggression and coercion. And although you may have stated property is only obtained by transaction I think, history shows different. That through violence, property cam be obtained, and has often been obtained this way. Lenin has before said that highest form of capitalism, so it can be assumed that property appropriation is the most basic form. Tell me, if this appropriated land is transacted mutually, does this essentially "clean" the coopted property and is now owned by someone new, or is it still rightfully that of the first occupant? Is not right to seize this original property then if so? These are blind spots in judgement of the NAP dogma. You're right that "the NAP is a concept that
tries to create an orderly system," but only that it tries, but fails. The memes are probably the logical conclusion in practice. You also mentioned a court. Shouldn't that not exist under Ancapistan? Or, is it a private court? What if someone doesn't agree with the settlement? Is he allowed to be killed? How? Doesn't he own the right to the property of his life? In this case, any fight or reaction on either side is justified because apparently your life is property too! Can't have someone
coerce your life.
But, it's not about life. Because life is not property. What can be assumed that as long as someone occupies a land, that is property.